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How do they come with these quantifications that something is 3000 sweeter than sugar. What does that even mean? Cool find though, I hope it works - in the past it's seemed that while you may be able to fool your tongue, your stomach and brain are not so easily fooled.


Maybe they used 1/3000 the quantity of sugar and people rated each sample to be equally sweet.

Edit: it is based on weight compared to sucrose [1], so I happened to be right!

[1] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC549512/


I imagine it's the same way they measure scoville units.

It's sensitivity.

How much of the substance is required for a group of people to consistently correctly guess which of two identical water glasses have been spiked with the substance.

If it's like this then 1/3000 is required compared to sugar.


I'm guessing they mean that it's detectable by humans at a 3000x lower concentration than sugar.


Just as a point of reference, aspartame is considered to be 150-200x sweeter than sugar.

355ml Coke Cola has 39grams of sugar

355ml Diet Coke has 0.2grams of aspartame

If the new compound was a 1-to-1 replacement, a putative Sweelin Coke would have 0.013grams (13mgs) of sweetener.


Could be the size of the molecule that will activate the relevant taste receptors, or the number of active molecules in a given volume of product, or given weight.


It’s either 3000x sweeter by volume or number of calories per X amount of sweetness.

I’m pretty sure it’s the latter but it doesn’t seem easy to Google.


It's actually by weight, not by volume.

As a fun note, by calories, aspartame would be infinitely sweeter than sugar, since it has 0 calories.




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