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If that's true, then by the same reasoning you're also saying that heliocentrism wasn't known to the Europe of (insert any time before the mid 1600s), because it was little more than an idea some guy had, not dominant or accepted.

But nobody would characterize the history of the science that way, because it simply isn't true. "Wasn't known to the Greeks" is inaccurate, particularly in its historical context, since science and philosophy were often "little more than 'this idea some guy had.'"



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