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And even if you want to define it as such, why is that bad for health?


I’ve seen one theory that it might be something to do with not needing as much chewing and how quickly you can eat it. I can’t remember exactly the article I was reading but apparently there is a massive difference (e.g. insulin spike, etc.) eating apple purée of one apple vs. eating an apple.

Needing to chew less processed food may help just by being kind of rate-limiting (slowing down how fast you can get the food in), but also the enzymes in your saliva have time to start working on the food before you swallow it.

If I recall correctly I have also read (perhaps the same article, but maybe somewhere else) that some processes related to digestion might be triggered when you start eating (chewing), so the fact that you can eat so many calories so quickly before those processes get going might make a big difference too.


as I understand, it's also the fiber. The fiber acts as a barrier that slows down the speed at which you absorb the food which leads to a smoother insulin spike (in case of carbs) and a faster feeling of satiation. When you blend the apple all that fiber is broken down do it loses those properties


Nobody knows. This is one of the things that makes efforts to regulate UPFs frustrating.

Some people say that it is lack of fiber. Some people say that it is inflammation caused by preservatives and/or stabilizers. Some people say it is the hyperpaletability, which encourages people to overconsume calories. Some people say it is just the high amounts of sugar and salt. And it is unlikely that all of these things contribute equally such that they should all be regulated the same.


Tangent because I do think you are asking a pretty clear question, but I find it’s much more helpful in these discussions to specify why(mechanical explanation) from why(elaborate on known info) from why(what is the human reason for an action).

Because you really can interpret any of these in a lot of the situations where someone is asking “why”.


it's not food,thats why

it is a food substitute. food is composed of recognisable ingedients. what comes from factorys has no connection or relation to that. the unspoken premise is that pre prepared stuff with a label is somehow part of a continuity. , pared= to cut/divided

prepared=cut/divided~for you

pre prepared= wtf?


> it's not food,thats why

Its pure meat, meat is food. What do you mean?


What are you talking about? Why is it not food?


It’s bad for health because the science says so.

You’re welcome to do your own years of research to learn more (everything, cooking, freezing, drying, blending, adding acids affects amino acids and certainly bacteria in the food) but until then stick with what the studies prove


The science is messy.

The UPF definition includes a ton of very distinct things. It is unlikely that emulsifiers, preservatives, food dyes, added sugar, and removed fiber all produce the same health responses. Science showing correlations between UPF consumption and health outcomes also don't tend to show a dose response, which is odd. We'd expect lots of UPF consumption to be very bad and for some UPF consumption to be kind of bad, but we don't tend to see this in the data.

Nutritional research is also enormously difficult to perform. Any sort of controlled study is necessarily over short periods of time. Long term studies come with all of the messy confounds that make it remarkably difficult to determine causation.


The one in the article is dose dependent…

And I really don’t understand your point at all. All science starts with observing a correlation and deducing a cause years to centuries later.

But you don’t wait for newton to start believing in gravity


I don't have free access to the paper and dose response findings are not present in the summary. Can you reference the dose response findings for me?

Existing published research has not consistently found a dose response.

The authors are also not just saying "hey here is some science." They are advocating for policies that say that plain potato chips can be in schools but sour cream and onion potato chips cannot.


I guess a reasonable person can question the science, when ordinary words are used wildly inappropriately. E.g. 'ultra-processed' to mean things that are far from that.

If 'the science' is so conclusive, then maybe a single link to a single study would be an appropriate response.



How about responding to the one in the article…?




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