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Curious on your thought to my reply: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=46059074

Can you share your longitudinal anecdata? I am considering going back on AAS for the QoL benefits, but would like to create a better mental model of long-term ramifications for testicular health.

It's my understanding that 40, it simply is expected that your hormones levels will be much lower (and that is not necessarily a bad thing). However my mind is failing to grasp what long-term damage TRT can do to the HPTA when not using an obscene amount of gear and on HCG.

Trying to figure out the mechanism. Perhaps receptor desensitization and epigenetic compensatory changes?



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